March 2017
a) List criteria for a diagnosis of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)? (3 marks)
b) Which clinical indices are used to quantify oxygenation in ARDS. (3 marks)
c) What tidal volume would you select for a patient that meets the criteria for ARDS, using the ARDSNet
protcol? (2 marks)
What are the ventilatory (6 marks) and non-ventilatory, (6 marks) measures that can be taken to improve
oxygenation or prevent further deterioration in a patient with ARDS.
Question 1: Management of status epilepticus
Pass rate 47.1%
This question was judged to be easy and is relevant to everyday practice as anaesthetists may encounter such patients in multiple areas including ITU, neurosurgery and the emergency department. Very few candidates were aware of the up to date definition of status epilepticus. In part b some candidates failed to give details of drug management despite this being specifically asked for in the question.
March 2017
You are asked to review a 27-year-old male who is a known epileptic in convulsive status epilepticus.
a) Define convulsive status epilepticus. (1 mark)
b) Outline your initial management of this patient including the use of emergency antiepileptic drug
therapy. (7 marks)
c) 60 minutes after your initial management the patient continues in status epilepticus. What would be your
further management? (5 marks)
d) What are the complications associated with refractory convulsive status epilepticus? (7 marks)
Question 1: Management of status epilepticus
Pass rate 47.1%
This question was judged to be easy and is relevant to everyday practice as anaesthetists may encounter such patients in multiple areas including ITU, neurosurgery and the emergency department. Very few candidates were aware of the up to date definition of status epilepticus. In part b some candidates failed to give details of drug management despite this being specifically asked for in the question.
March 2016
A 20-year-old man is brought to the emergency department having been pulled from a river where he got into difficulties whilst swimming.
  • a)  Describe the relevant history (5 marks) and investigations (8 marks) for this patient who has suffered
    near-drowning.
  • b)  He has a Glasgow Coma Score of 13 but is found to have an arterial oxygen partial pressure of 6kPa
    (45mmHg) breathing 4L of oxygen via a variable performance mask. Outline your initial management of this patient. (7 marks)
Assessment and management of a victim of drowning Pass rate 57.9% Candidates who scored well in part (a) of this question presented well organized answers. Examiners marking this question felt that candidates who scored poorly in part (b) did so because they tended to focus solely on airway management and did not mention other important measures in the resuscitation such as rewarming and fluid management. This part of the question asked for initial management, not just airway management.
March 2016

  • a)  List 3 common causes of acute pancreatitis in the United Kingdom. (3 marks)
  • b)  How is acute pancreatitis diagnosed? (3 marks)
  • c)  Describe the classification of severity of acute pancreatitis. (3 marks)
  • d)  What are the specific principles of managing severe acute pancreatitis in a critical care environment?
    (11 marks)
Intensive care management of acute pancreatitis Pass rate 53.6% This is a condition seen commonly in intensive care. Many candidates did not mention alcohol as a cause in part (a). Few candidates could describe the classification of severity of acute pancreatitis as asked for in part (b). Also some candidates tended to give a generic answer to part (d) describing the management of sepsis, rather than the specific management of acute pancreatitis as asked. This resulted in them losing marks in this section.
September 2015

  • a)  What is meant by the term ventilator associated pneumonia (VAP)? (3 marks)
  • b)  List the factors that increase the risk of the development of VAP. (10 marks)
  • c)  What measures may reduce the risk of development of VAP? (7 marks)
Ventilator associated pneumonia (VAP) Pass rate 44.3% This is a common condition that candidates should have seen so it was surprising that it was quite poorly answered. Very few candidates were able to give a definition of VAP or to give details of the care bundles used in its prevention and treatment. Merely stating “a care bundle would be used“ suggests inadequate depth of knowledge.
March 2015

a) Define critical illness weakness (CIW, 1 mark) and list the types that may occur. (3 marks) b) List the risk factors for the development of weakness on the ICU. (6 marks) c) What are the clinical features of CIW? (4 marks) d) How may nerve conduction studies determine the type of CIW? (4 marks)
e) What are the options for the management of CIW? (2 marks)
Critical Illness Weakness Pass Rate 30.4%, 46.6% of candidates received a poor fail
This question was anticipated to be difficult for the candidates and the pass and poor fail rates reflect this expectation. The subject matter is topical and an important consideration in the management of critically ill patients. Many candidates had no idea that the definition excluded pre-existing pathology, and that the weakness was symmetrical with cranial nerves sparing. Few candidates had knowledge of the use of nerve conduction studies and even fewer mentioned the MRC scale of scoring muscle power. The importance of preparing detailed notes on mandatory units of training when revising for the Final FRCA is exemplified by this question.
March 2015

A 54 year-old patient is admitted to the Emergency Department following a traumatic brain injury. A CT scan reveals only cerebral oedema. a) What is secondary brain injury and when is it likely to occur? (2 marks) b) Outline the main physiological and cellular changes associated with secondary brain injury. (7 marks) c) How can secondary brain injury be minimised in this patient? (11 marks)
Secondary brain injury Pass Rate 8.3%, 59.2% of candidates received a poor fail
The pass and poor fail rates for this question are disturbing, and this question had only moderate discriminatory power as the candidate cohort performed so poorly. Management of head injury not requiring neurosurgery is common to most intensive care units. Many candidates were unable to define secondary injury or give an appropriate time frame. Most were unaware of the pathophysiological cellular mechanisms and focused solely on the Monroe-Kelly doctrine. Overall knowledge of NICE guidelines was superficial and most candidates did not define the physiological goals for therapy in enough detail. Treatment options were too narrow in scope although the information given was usually sensible. Examiners were left with the overall impression that many candidates have little theoretical knowledge or practical experience of care of the brain injured patient.
March 2014

a) What are the indications for (20%) and possible contraindications to (25%) elective percutaneous tracheostomy (PCT)?

b) List the potential early (40%) and late (15%) patient complications of PCT.
Pass Rate 79.4%

This question is highly relevant to modern critical care practice, and the involvement of trainees in PCT procedures is reflected by the very high pass rate. Most marks were lost in the section on complications but in general this question was well answered. It was obvious which candidates had observed or performed a significant numbers of PCTs and which had not.
September 2013

a) What are the indications for arterial cannulation? (35%)

b) How may an invasive arterial pressure measuring system be calibrated? (20%)

c) Outline the sources of error when measuring invasive arterial pressure. (45%)
35.8% pass rate.

This question was poorly answered and therefore had a high failure rate despite a low pass mark being set. Many candidates wrongly interpreted the question as “indications for intra-aortic balloon pump”. The indications for arterial cannulation were for measurement (continuous blood pressure; cardiac output; blood gases), diagnostic (angiography) and therapeutic purposes (thrombolysis, vasodilators chemotherapy, EVAR, ECMO, stenting, renal replacement therapy). Many candidates focused on aspects of measurement only.

All transducers are calibrated in the factory but calibration is carried out in the clinical environment using static and dynamic testing methods, a short description was all that was required. Sources of error included transducer drift, the causes of damping/resonance and incorrect transducer height. There appeared to be a lack of understanding of the physical principles of transducers and confusion between damping and resonance. The ODP might well calibrate the transducer for you but this fact was not included in the model answer as it is important that anaesthetists understand the methods and principles of calibration even if they do not carry them out themselves.
September 2013

a) What are the indications for renal replacement therapy (RRT) in the Intensive Care setting? (40%)

b) List the types of RRT available on Intensive Care. (30%)

c) Outline the principle mechanisms of solute and water removal by RRT. (30%)
59.1% pass rate.

This was a relatively straightforward question that proved to be a very good discriminator. Sections a) and b) were answered well but c), description of the physical principles of filtration and dialysis were poor.
March 2013

You are asked to assess a 24-year-old male who has been admitted to the Emergency Department with 30% burns from a house fire.

a) What would lead you to suspect significant inhalational injury? (40%)

b) Which investigations would you use to assess the severity of the inhalational injury and what are the likely findings? (30%)

c) List the indications for early tracheal intubation to secure the airway. (20%)

d) How do burns injuries influence the use of suxamethonium?(10%)
64.2% pass rate.

Section a) required details of the history (burn received in enclosed space / delayed escape), general observations, features of upper and lower airway injury and harm from noxious gases.
September 2012

A 45-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis and alcohol abuse is admitted to the intensive care unit for inotropic and ventilatory support following a laparotomy to excise a toxic megacolon. His body mass index is 18kg/m2.

a) Why should this patient receive early nutritional support and what are the clinical benefits? (30%)

b) What is the specific composition of a nutritional regimen for this patient? (30%)

c) List the advantages and disadvantages of enteral nutrition. (40%)
Question 2: Enteral nutrition in critically ill.

44.9% pass rate.

This question was answered poorly. The provision of enteral and parenteral nutrition in critically ill patients is very important and a detailed knowledge of the specific components of a feeding regimen is essential. The specific components required were:
Water (ml/kg/day)
Calories (kCal/kg/day)
Protein, fat and carbohydrate (g/day) Na/K (mmol/kg/day) and minerals Vitamins
Immunonutrition
Many candidates failed to be specific enough. Leaving the prescribing to the “nutrition team” or “Intensive Care dietician” are not appropriate answers.
March 2013

a) Outline the general principles in the management of poisoning by oral ingestion? (40%)

b) What are the mechanisms of toxicity of a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) overdose? (10%)

c) List the clinical features of a TCA overdose (20%) and how the associated life threatening complications are managed. (30%)
60.5% pass rate.

This question was also answered well. Some candidates failed to focus on the history of the overdose and risk assessments to attendants.

In section b) on the mechanisms of toxicity of tricyclic antidepressants (TCA), the following points were required:
Norepinephrine / serotonin reuptake;
Anticholinergic effects;
Direct  -adrenergic block
Na channel block

One mark for each mechanism (maximum of 2).

The management TCA overdose involved airway protection, gastric decontamination and the management of seizures. The model answer needed details of the treatment of hypotension, arrhythmias and acidaemia (fluids, sodium bicarbonate, vasopressors glucagon and magnesium).
September 2012

A 4-year-old child is admitted to the Emergency Department with suspected meningococcal septicaemia. You are asked to help resuscitate the patient prior to transfer to a tertiary centre.

a) List the clinical features of meningococcal septicaemia. (35%)

b) Outline the initial management of this patient? (45%)

c) Which investigations will guide care? (20%)
Question 5: Paediatrics/management of meningococcal septicaemia.

67.6% pass rate.

This paediatric emergency is commonly encountered both in Secondary and Tertiary centres. Although the question was answered satisfactorily, marks were lost by not calling for help and inappropriate fluid resuscitation. Many candidates failed to communicate with the tertiary centre for advice or to summon the paediatric retrieval team.

This question was a very good discriminator.
September 2012

a) What are the symptoms (10%) and signs (20%) of raised intracranial pressure (ICP) in an adult?

b) Describe the physiological principles underlying the management of raised ICP. (40%)

c) What methods are used to manage or prevent acute rises in ICP? (30%)
Question 10: Raised intracranial pressure (symptoms and signs)/physiological basis/management.

56% pass rate.

Many candidates failed to attempt to answer b) Physiological mechanisms of raised intracranial pressure instead wrote about areas of clinical management only then to repeat the same points in section c). Key points are never repeated in any question.

A number of candidates advised a 30-degree head-up tilt rather than the 15-20 degrees recommended in this question. Perhaps there was confusion with the head-up tilt to avoid ventilator-associated pneumonia.
March 2012

a) How may ultrasound be used in anaesthetic and critical care practice? (30%)

b) What information can echocardiography provide in a haemodynamically unstable patient? (50%)

c) What is the Doppler Effect? How may this be used in clinical practice? (20%)
Question 4 Physics and clinical measurement/ultrasound

66.5% pass rate

In general, candidates demonstrated sound clinical knowledge but had greater difficulty in explaining the Doppler effect and how the principle is applied. This question was used in the September 2011 paper.
March 2012

You are asked to review an 18-year-old male in the Emergency Department who has been found obtunded at home. He is an insulin dependent diabetic with a history of poor control.

Capillary blood glucose is 23.4mmol/L.

a) List the clinical and biochemical findings that confirm severe diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)? (40%)

b) Outline the management plan for severe DKA within the first hour. (40%)

c) What are the serious complications that can follow the management of DKA? (20%)
Question 7 Critical care/management of DKA

57.2% pass rate
March 2012

You have been called urgently to attend a ventilated patient on the ICU who has become acutely agitated, hypertensive and profoundly hypoxic. A percutaneous tracheostomy was performed 18 hours ago and is being weaned from ventilatory support.

a) List possible causes for this patient’s acute hypoxia. (25%)

b) What clinical features support an airway problem? (40%)

c) How would you manage an airway problem in this patient? (35%)
Question11 Critical care/management of airway problem/tracheostomy

76.6% pass rate

In the main was a well-answered question
September 2011

a) What features are required to meet the American-European criteria for a diagnosis of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)? (20%)

b) List the clinical indices used to quantify and communicate problems with oxygenation in ARDS. (10%)

c) What tidal volume would you select for a patient that meets the criteria for ARDS? (10%)

d) List the ventilatory (30%) and non-ventilatory (30%) measures that can be taken to improve oxygenation or prevent further deterioration in a patient with ARDS.
Question11 Critical care/management of airway problem/tracheostomy

76.6% pass rate

In the main was a well-answered question
September 2011

a) What are the cerebral physiological benefits of induced hypothermia following successful resuscitation from cardiac arrest? (25%)

b) How can a patient be cooled in these circumstances? (20%)

c) What adverse effects may occur due to the use of induced hypothermia? (35%)

d) In what other non-surgical clinical scenarios may the use of induced hypothermia be beneficial?
(20%)
Question11 Critical care/management of airway problem/tracheostomy

76.6% pass rate

In the main was a well-answered question
September 2011

a) How may ultrasound techniques be used in anaesthetic and critical care practice? (40%)

b) What information can echocardiography provide in a haemodynamically unstable patient? (45%)

c) What is the Doppler Effect? How may this be used in echocardiography? (15%)
Question11 Critical care/management of airway problem/tracheostomy

76.6% pass rate

In the main was a well-answered question
March 2011

a) List the modes of non-invasive respiratory support (NIRS). (20%)

b) In what adult clinical scenarios may NIRS be indicated? (30%)

c) What are the contraindications to NIRS? (30%)

d) Summarise the clinical advantages of NIRS compared to conventional positive pressure ventilation via a
tracheal tube. (20%)
Question11 Critical care/management of airway problem/tracheostomy

76.6% pass rate

In the main was a well-answered question
September 2010

a) Describe the initial management options following a paracetamol overdose. (25%)

b) What clinical features may develop following an untreated paracetamol overdose? (35%)

c) List the biochemical and haematological abnormalities that may occur at 72 hours following an untreated
paracetamol overdose. (30%)
Question11 Critical care/management of airway problem/tracheostomy

76.6% pass rate

In the main was a well-answered question
March 2010

A pregnant patient (BMI=38) with confirmed H1N1 influenza is admitted to ICU at 35 weeks gestation. On arrival her PaO2 is 6.6kPa (15L/min O2 via facemask) with a respiratory rate of 50 breaths/min. Her blood pressure is 130/85 mmHg, pulse 130 beats per minute, core temperature 38.7°C and her haemoglobin concentration is 7g.dl-1.

a) What staff protection measures should be available for dealing with this patient in ICU? (25%)

b) What are the important considerations when performing tracheal intubation in this patient? (25%)

c) Outline the options available to optimise oxygenation in this intubated patient. (40%)
Question11 Critical care/management of airway problem/tracheostomy

76.6% pass rate

In the main was a well-answered question
September 2009

A 20 year old is admitted to the Emergency Department having been involved in a road traffic accident. His Glasgow Coma Score (GCS) is 12. He has a closed fracture of his left femur. No other injuries are evident. A CT scan of his head has revealed a right subdural haematoma, and it has been agreed to transfer him to the regional neurosurgical unit 60 miles away.

a) What are your clinical priorities prior to transfer of this patient? (50%)

b) What are the indications for intubation and ventilation prior to transfer following a brain injury of this nature? (30%)

c) Who should accompany this patient for transfer to the neurosurgical unit? (10%)
Question11 Critical care/management of airway problem/tracheostomy

76.6% pass rate

In the main was a well-answered question
April 2009

With regard to the recognition and management of Acute Asthma in adults:
a) List the clinical features of acute asthma. (20%)

b) What clinical features would suggest that the severity of the asthma is becoming life threatening? (20%)

c) What is the initial management of a patient presenting to the Emergency department with acute severe asthma. (50%)
Question11 Critical care/management of airway problem/tracheostomy

76.6% pass rate

In the main was a well-answered question
April 2009

a) Describe in detail the procedures you should use to decontaminate your hands before beginning a shift on ITU? (50%)

b) What hand decontamination procedures can be used when moving between patients? (10%)

c) What additional hand decontamination procedures can be used when moving between patients if the previous patient has Clostridium difficile? What is the reason? (10%)

d) How can you reduce the irritant and drying effects of hand cleansing preparations? (20%)
Question11 Critical care/management of airway problem/tracheostomy

76.6% pass rate

In the main was a well-answered question
April 2009

Following initial resuscitation and treatment for a crush injury to the lower limbs, a previously fit 55 year-old patient is noted to have a urine output of 15 ml/hr. The urine is noted to be very dark. Blood pressure and pulse are within normal limits. Serum creatinine is 200 μmol/litre and potassium is 5.7 mmol/litre.

a) What is the most likely diagnosis? (10%)

b) What investigations would be appropriate? (30%)

c) How should this condition be managed? (50%)
Question11 Critical care/management of airway problem/tracheostomy

76.6% pass rate

In the main was a well-answered question
October 2008

(a) What complications may arise from cannulation of the subclavian vein? (45%)

(b) What precautions should be used to minimise central venous catheter related bloodstream infections? (45%)
Question11 Critical care/management of airway problem/tracheostomy

76.6% pass rate

In the main was a well-answered question
October 2008

a) What criteria would suggest to you a brain stem dead patient may be suitable as a potential donor of organs? (25%)

b) What are the pathophysiological changes that can occur following brain stem death? (30%)

c) How would you manage a potential heart-beating organ donor following brain stem testing prior to
donation? (35%)
Question11 Critical care/management of airway problem/tracheostomy

76.6% pass rate

In the main was a well-answered question
April 2008

a) What are the causes of acute pancreatitis? (20%)

b) How may acute pancreatitis present? (20%)

c) Outline the principles of management of acute pancreatitis in a ventilated patient. (30%)

d) What complications may develop? (20%)
Question11 Critical care/management of airway problem/tracheostomy

76.6% pass rate

In the main was a well-answered question
October 2007

a) What complications may arise from cannulation of the subclavian vein? (45%)

b) What precautions should be used to minimise central venous catheter related bloodstream infections? (45%)
Question11 Critical care/management of airway problem/tracheostomy

76.6% pass rate

In the main was a well-answered question
October 2007

a) What clinical features would suggest to you that a patient has a pleural fluid collection? (45%)

b) Describe investigations that assess the size (30%) and nature (15%) of a pleural fluid collection, and indicate how results of each can guide management.
Question11 Critical care/management of airway problem/tracheostomy

76.6% pass rate

In the main was a well-answered question
October 2007

A 45 year old man is admitted directly from the Emergency Department to the Intensive Care Unit with oliguria and respiratory distress presumed to be secondary to severe acute pancreatitis.

a) What assessments and investigations might be used to support this diagnosis and help grade the severity? (30%)

b) Outline your treatment plan for the first 48 hours. (50%)

c) What is the expected mortality and the main cause of death in severe acute pancreatitis? (10%)
Question11 Critical care/management of airway problem/tracheostomy

76.6% pass rate

In the main was a well-answered question
May 2007

a) What information is available from a thermodilution pulmonary artery catheter? (35%)

b) How can this information be used in the management of a critically ill, hypotensive patient following laparotomy for faecal peritonitis? (55%)
Question11 Critical care/management of airway problem/tracheostomy

76.6% pass rate

In the main was a well-answered question
October 2006

(a) What methods are available for measuring intra abdominal pressure (IAP) in a patient in intensive care? Give details of one technique. (20%)
(b) What are the effects of abdominal compartment syndrome (ACS)? (50%)
(c) Describe the significance of the intraabdominal pressure value and the principles of the management of abdominal compartment syndrome. (20%)

Question11 Critical care/management of airway problem/tracheostomy

76.6% pass rate

In the main was a well-answered question
October 2006

A 60 year old male was admitted to the ICU 10 days previously with septic shock and acute lung injury following anastamotic dehiscence of an anterior colonic resection. He was recovering well on the HDU until 48 hours ago when his condition deteriorated with abdominal distension and diarrhoea. It is suspected that he has developed a new systemic inflammatory response syndrome.
(a) How should the patient be assessed clinically? (40%)
(b) List the key initial investigations in this patient? (50%)
Question11 Critical care/management of airway problem/tracheostomy

76.6% pass rate

In the main was a well-answered question
May 2006

a) Briefly state the basic neurological principle of the apnoea test component of Brain Stem Death (BSD) testing. (30%)
b) What value must be achieved and what factors determine the time of achievement of the threshold PaCO2? (40%)
c) Describe the physiology of maintenance of oxygenation during the apnoea test. (30%) (You may assume criteria for testing for BSD have been fulfilled.)
Question11 Critical care/management of airway problem/tracheostomy

76.6% pass rate

In the main was a well-answered question
October 2005

You are asked to review an unkempt middle aged man who was found semi-conscious in a hostel. He smells of alcohol. His arterial blood gases breathing oxygen at 4 L/min via a Hudson mask are pH 6.94, PaCO2 2.9 kPa, HCO3 4.7 mmol/l, BE -26.6 mmol/l and PaO2 26.8 kPa.

What are the possible causes of acidosis in this patient ? (40%)

How may laboratory tests help you reach a diagnosis ? (30%)

Very briefly what treatments would you institute for each cause ? (30%)
Question11 Critical care/management of airway problem/tracheostomy

76.6% pass rate

In the main was a well-answered question
October 2005

When considering Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) give an estimate of the daily requirements for calories, protein, fat and carbohydrate in a 70 kg critically ill adult? (30%)
What volume of water is usually prescribed? (10%)
What other components should be given? (10%)
List the potential complications and disadvantages of the administration of TPN. (50%)
Question11 Critical care/management of airway problem/tracheostomy

76.6% pass rate

In the main was a well-answered question
May 2005

How is ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) diagnosed? (20%)
Explain the physical (50%), positional (15%) and pharmacological (15%) strategies that have been advocated for its prevention?
Question11 Critical care/management of airway problem/tracheostomy

76.6% pass rate

In the main was a well-answered question
October 2004

A patient is mechanically ventilated for acute lung injury in the ICU. Explain what practical steps you would take to turn the patient from the supine to the prone position. (70%)
List three common acute complications of the prone position. (30%)
Question11 Critical care/management of airway problem/tracheostomy

76.6% pass rate

In the main was a well-answered question
October 2004

An obese 70 year old man underwent an emergency abdominal aortic aneurysm repair yesterday evening. He is known to be a heavy smoker and is a treated hypertensive. He has been cardiovascularly stable overnight and is responding appropriately. Propofol and morphine infusions are stopped with a view to extubation. Agitation, tachycardia (heart rate 130) and hypertension develop (250/90 mmHg).
List the factors that could be important in precipitating this response. (40%)
Briefly outline your further management in ICU of these factors. (60%)
Question11 Critical care/management of airway problem/tracheostomy

76.6% pass rate

In the main was a well-answered question
October 2004

A patient on the ICU, who had cardiac surgery completed 3 hours ago, is still intubated.
What clinical features might suggest the development of acute cardiac tamponade? (55%)
How might you confirm the diagnosis? (5%)
Outline your management of acute cardiac tamponade? (40%)
Question11 Critical care/management of airway problem/tracheostomy

76.6% pass rate

In the main was a well-answered question
May 2003

What is ventilator induced lung injury? Explain the relative importance of volutrauma and barotrauma. What is the practical importance of ventilator induced lung injury?
Question11 Critical care/management of airway problem/tracheostomy

76.6% pass rate

In the main was a well-answered question
May 2003

Under what circumstances is myoglobin found in the urine? What are the implications of myoglobinuria and how is it managed?
Question11 Critical care/management of airway problem/tracheostomy

76.6% pass rate

In the main was a well-answered question
October 2002

Discuss the causes of muscle weakness in a critically ill patient. How would you investigate them?
Question11 Critical care/management of airway problem/tracheostomy

76.6% pass rate

In the main was a well-answered question
April 2002

Discuss methods of applying non-invasive ventilation. What are its uses and benefits?
Question11 Critical care/management of airway problem/tracheostomy

76.6% pass rate

In the main was a well-answered question
April 2002

What is disseminated intravascular coagulation. Discuss its management in the critically ill patient.
Question11 Critical care/management of airway problem/tracheostomy

76.6% pass rate

In the main was a well-answered question
October 2001

Discuss the ventilatory management of an adult with ARDS.
Question11 Critical care/management of airway problem/tracheostomy

76.6% pass rate

In the main was a well-answered question
May 2001

Describe the criteria and tests for brain stem death. Briefly indicate the neurological basis for each test.
Question11 Critical care/management of airway problem/tracheostomy

76.6% pass rate

In the main was a well-answered question